Jesus, Risen on Saturday, the First of the Sabbaths
But late in [the] sabbaths, at the dawning into [the] first of the sabbaths, Mary the Magdalene and the other Mary came to gaze upon the grave. (Matthew 28:1 KJ3)
And the first of [the] sabbaths, at early dawn, they came on the tomb, carrying spices which they prepared; and some were with them. (Luke 24:1 KJ3
And very early on the first of [the] sabbaths, the sun having risen, they came upon the tomb. (Mark 16:2 KJ3)
But on the first of [the] sabbaths, Mary Magdalene came early in the morning to the tomb, it yet being dark. And she sees the stone having been taken away from the tomb. (John 20:1 KJ3)
vespere autem sabbati quae lucescit in primam sabbati venit Maria Magdalene et altera Maria videre sepulchrum (Matthew 28:1 Latin Vulgate 405 AD Gallican Version)
Matthew 28:1 Interlinear Scripture Analyzer
Compare the interlinear Greek with the translation of the Authorized Version (AV) and critique for yourself the faithfulness of the AV to the original Greek. Can you spot the word "day" in the Greek?
Was He risen on Sunday or on Saturday?
Two words in the translation of Matthew 28:1-2 of the the King James Version (KJV) explain the breaking away from the Jewish roots of Christianity: day and week; the former is an addition is an addition and the latter an interpretation.
In Matthew 28:1,the injection by the translators of the virus (viral) word "day" and the rendering of the plural Greek word "of Sabbaths" into the singular virus (viral) word "week" in the Greek sentence did the trick to keep the great majority of unsuspecting believers in the dark concerning the biblical day of resurrection. I do not know why the translators decided to add the word "day" in the English translations but the injected word serves as the catalyst that caused a major doctrinal shift away from Moses, Jesus, and the Apostles. The true day of resurrection is shown in the Interlinear Scripture Analyzer above, whether you know Greek or not, and even in the Latin Vulgate Gallican Catholic version of 405 AD.
Why did the translators translate the plural word "Sabbaths" by the singular word "week" and not the equivalent plural "weeks"? It is to support Sunday worship (pay attention to rendering of "Sabbaths" into "Sabbath days" in Colossians 2:15). As you might understand, the Greek manuscripts do not say that the women went to the tomb on the first day of the week. Rather, the Greek manuscript says that the women went to the tomb on the first of Sabbaths (the Jews were to count 7 Sabbaths that lead to Pentecostal (50th) day]. The Literal Versions of the New Testament translate that the women went to the tomb on the first of the Sabbaths. The interlinear caption above and from E-Sword of Matthew 28:1 vindicate them. But, do you care?
Note: the Greek manuscript does not have "an angel the Lord" but "big messenger for of Jehovah (kuriou) ".
The Latin Vulgate Gallican Version (405 AD) testimony
In researching the various translated versions of the Bible, curious to find out how far back I can go to find a version that strove to be faithful to the Greek of Matthew 28:1-2, I was surprised to see that Eusebius Sophronius Hieronymus, who is known as St Jerome, kept in his translation the spirit of the Greek manuscript denoting the day when the Marys went to tomb of Jesus, that is, "in primam sabbati". (Latin was part of my High School curriculum in Haiti. Grammatically, Latin is very similar to ancient Greek which unfortunately was not part of my curriculum). Nevertheless, you do not have to know Latin to not see "first of the Sabbaths" in "in primam sabbati". The Vulgate is a Catholic Version. It is a pity that vulgate.org does not offer a word for word translation, as Jerome felt compelled to do.